Hello all,
This has never happened, so it is theoretical. I asked an NTD, since I did not know, and he had no clue!
Imagine in some random position, where white may castle later, black plays Qa5+. And in this position, all white legal moves are King moves (no way to capture the queen or block). So, in this position, after Qa5+, one could argue (like me) that white cannot castle (ever), since all legal moves are king moves.
Then, let’s suppose white plays Kf1, and black plays Qb6, white plays Ke1, and black plays Qa5+. So… now white cannot castle, because he moved his king twice. The first time this position “occurred” white could not castle, because every legal move was a king move to stop check.
In my opinion, this position has now occurred twice, because in both positions, through any series of legal moves after Qa5+, white cannot castle. Although I can easily see it argued the other way. White hasn’t moved his king yet, and even though he is forced to, he still hasn’t done so yet! lol
I think a VERY strict interpretation of the rule-book would indicate the positions are different, but I would prefer that they are treated as the same position.
Opinions?
Thanks!
Ben